@astefanowitsch I'm curious — would you know an answer to this question, or could you point me to anything related I could read?

If a word A in language X has the same meaning as another word B in language Y, then B is a translation of A. Let's say C (in a third language Z) is a translation of B. Does this imply that C is also a translation of A into Z?

(Related: do we have a definition of "B is a translation of A"? And, in a linguistic context, is there a commonly accepted definition of "meaning"? I suppose something involving "context"?)

@astefanowitsch Sorry, forget the question, I wasn't thinking.

A→C does obviously not follow from A→B and B→C, because B could be a homonym while A and C are not (at least if we only demand A and B to have the same meaning, and B and C, but B may have different meanings in A→B vs. B→C).

Example: consider the English word "Jaw".
"Jaw" (English) → "Kiefer" (German)" → "Pino" (Spanish).
But "Jaw" (English) is not "Pino" (Spanish), because "Kiefer" (German) is a homonym. And this doesn't even involve cases where a concept exists in only one language.

On the other hand, if we do demand the same meaning for B in both cases the whold thing is trivial.

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